Cybersecurity-Practitioner Exam Questions - Real & Updated Questions PDF
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NEW QUESTION # 66
Under which category does an application that is approved by the IT department, such as Office 365, fall?
- A. unsanctioned
- B. sanctioned
- C. prohibited
- D. tolerated
Answer: B
Explanation:
A sanctioned application is an application that is approved by the IT department and meets the security and compliance requirements of the organization. Sanctioned applications are allowed to access the organization's network and data and are monitored and protected by the IT department. Examples of sanctioned applications are Office 365, Salesforce, and Zoom. Sanctioned applications are different from unsanctioned, prohibited, and tolerated applications, which are not approved by the IT department and may pose security risks to the organization. Unsanctioned applications are applications that are used by the employees without the IT department's knowledge or consent, such as Dropbox, Gmail, or Facebook. Prohibited applications are applications that are explicitly forbidden by the IT department, such as BitTorrent, Tor, or malware. Tolerated applications are applications that are not approved by the IT department, but are not blocked or restricted, such as Skype, Spotify, or YouTube. Reference: Palo Alto Networks Certified Cybersecurity Entry-level Technician (PCCET), Cloud Security Fundamentals - Module 4: Cloud Security Best Practices, Application Visibility and Control
NEW QUESTION # 67
What are two examples of an attacker using social engineering? (Choose two.)
- A. Convincing an employee that they are also an employee
- B. Acting as a company representative and asking for personal information not relevant to the reason for their call
- C. Compromising a website and configuring it to automatically install malicious files onto systems that visit the page
- D. Leveraging open-source intelligence to gather information about a high-level executive
Answer: A,B
Explanation:
Social engineering attacks manipulate human trust to gain unauthorized access or information. Convincing an employee that an attacker is also an employee builds rapport, lowering defenses for information disclosure or credential sharing. Similarly, impersonating a company representative and requesting unrelated personal data exploits authority bias to deceive victims. These tactics exploit psychological vulnerabilities rather than technical flaws and are prevalent initial steps in multi-stage attacks. Palo Alto Networks highlights the importance of training, multi-factor authentication, and behavior-based threat detection to mitigate social engineering risks effectively.
NEW QUESTION # 68
What is a key advantage and key risk in using a public cloud environment?
- A. Dedicated Hosts
- B. Multi-tenancy
- C. Multiplexing
- D. Dedicated Networks
Answer: B
Explanation:
Multitenancy is a key characteristic of the public cloud, and an important risk. Although public cloud providers strive to ensure isolation between their various customers, the infrastructure and resources in the public cloud are shared. Inherent risks in a shared environment include misconfigurations, inadequate or ineffective processes and controls, and the "noisy neighbor" problem (excessive network traffic, disk I/O, or processor use can negatively impact other customers sharing the same resource). In hybrid and multicloud environments that connect numerous public and/or private clouds, the delineation becomes blurred, complexity increases, and security risks become more challenging to address.
NEW QUESTION # 69
What are two characteristics of an advanced persistent threat (APT)? (Choose two.)
- A. Reduced interaction time
- B. Repeated pursuit of objective
- C. Tendency to isolate hosts
- D. Multiple attack vectors
Answer: B,D
Explanation:
Multiple attack vectors - APTs often use various methods (phishing, malware, lateral movement) to infiltrate and maintain access to a target.
Repeated pursuit of objective - APTs are known for their persistent nature, involving continuous efforts over time to achieve their goals, such as data theft or surveillance.
NEW QUESTION # 70
Which statement is true about advanced persistent threats?
- A. They have the skills and resources to launch additional attacks.
- B. They typically attack only once.
- C. They use script kiddies to carry out their attacks.
- D. They lack the financial resources to fund their activities.
Answer: A
Explanation:
An advanced persistent threat (APT) is a sophisticated, sustained cyberattack in which an intruder establishes an undetected presence in a network in order to steal sensitive data over a prolonged period of time. APTs are usually carried out by well-funded, experienced teams of cybercriminals that target high-value organizations, such as governments, military, or corporations. APTs have the skills and resources to launch additional attacks, as they often use advanced techniques to evade detection, move laterally within the network, and establish multiple entry points and backdoors. APTs are not interested in causing immediate damage or disruption, but rather in achieving long-term goals, such as espionage, sabotage, or theft of intellectual property. Therefore, option B is the correct answer among the given choices123 Reference:
1: Palo Alto Networks Certified Cybersecurity Entry-level Technician - Palo Alto Networks
2: 10 Palo Alto Networks PCCET Exam Practice Questions - CBT Nuggets
3: What Is an Advanced Persistent Threat (APT)? - Cisco
4: What is an Advanced Persistent Threat (APT)? - CrowdStrike
5: What Is an Advanced Persistent Threat (APT)? - Kaspersky
NEW QUESTION # 71
Which of the following is a CI/CD platform?
- A. Jira
- B. Github
- C. Atom.io
- D. Jenkins
Answer: D
Explanation:
A CI/CD platform is a comprehensive set of tools that help developers, engineers, and DevOps practitioners package and deliver software to the end users. A CI/CD platform automates the process of software testing and deployment, and enables faster and more reliable software releases. Jenkins is a popular open source CI/CD platform that supports a wide range of plugins and integrations to build, test, and deploy various types of applications. Jenkins can be configured to run on different platforms, such as Linux, Windows, or Docker, and can work with various version control systems, such as Git, SVN, or Mercurial. Jenkins can also orchestrate complex workflows, such as parallel or sequential execution, conditional branching, or parameterized triggering, using a graphical interface or a declarative syntax. Jenkins can help developers and DevOps teams achieve continuous integration and continuous delivery/deployment, by providing features such as:
* Pipeline as code: Jenkins allows users to define and manage their pipelines as code, using a domain-specific language (DSL) called Jenkinsfile. This enables users to store, version, and reuse their pipeline configurations, and to apply best practices such as code review and testing.
* Distributed builds: Jenkins can scale up or down to meet the demand of concurrent builds, by distributing the workload across multiple agents or nodes. This improves the performance and efficiency of the CI/CD process, and allows users to leverage different environments and resources for different stages of the pipeline.
* Plugin ecosystem: Jenkins has a rich and active community that contributes to its plugin ecosystem, which extends its functionality and compatibility with various tools and technologies. Users can find and install plugins from the Jenkins Plugin Manager, or create their own custom plugins using Java or Groovy.
* Blue Ocean: Jenkins offers a modern and user-friendly web interface called Blue Ocean, which simplifies the creation and visualization of pipelines. Blue Ocean provides features such as real-time feedback, interactive editing, branch and pull request support, and integration with popular chat platforms, such as Slack or Microsoft Teams.
Reference:
* Palo Alto Networks Certified Cybersecurity Entry-level Technician (PCCET) - Palo Alto Networks
* What Is a CI/CD Platform and Why Should I Care? | Harness
* What is CI/CD? - Red Hat
* Jenkins Documentation
NEW QUESTION # 72
Which type of system collects data and uses correlation rules to trigger alarms?
- A. SIEM
- B. UEBA
- C. SIM
- D. SOAR
Answer: A
Explanation:
A Security Information and Event Management (SIEM) system collects data from various sources (logs, events, etc.) and uses correlation rules to analyze this data and trigger alarms when suspicious or predefined patterns are detected.
NEW QUESTION # 73
Which Palo Alto subscription service identifies unknown malware, zero-day exploits, and advanced persistent threats (APTs) through static and dynamic analysis in a scalable, virtual environment?
- A. URL Filtering
- B. DNS Security
- C. Threat Prevention
- D. WildFire
Answer: D
Explanation:
"The WildFire cloud-based malware analysis environment is a cyber threat prevention service that identifies unknown malware, zero-day exploits, and advanced persistent threats (APTs) through static and dynamic analysis in a scalable, virtual environment. WildFire automatically disseminates updated protections in near-real time to immediately prevent threats from spreading; this occurs without manual intervention"
NEW QUESTION # 74
What is an event-driven snippet of code that runs on managed infrastructure?
- A. Hypervisor
- B. API
- C. Serverless function
- D. Docker container
Answer: C
Explanation:
A serverless function is an event-driven snippet of code that runs on managed infrastructure, typically as part of a Function as a Service (FaaS) model. It is executed in response to events such as HTTP requests or database changes, and the cloud provider handles the underlying infrastructure.
NEW QUESTION # 75
What is the primary security focus after consolidating data center hypervisor hosts within trust levels?
- A. control and protect inter-host traffic by exporting all your traffic logs to a sysvol log server using the User Datagram Protocol (UDP)
- B. control and protect inter-host traffic by using IPv4 addressing
- C. control and protect inter-host traffic using physical network security appliances
- D. control and protect inter-host traffic using routers configured to use the Border Gateway Protocol (BGP) dynamic routing protocol
Answer: C
Explanation:
page 211 "Consolidating servers within trust levels: Organizations often consolidate servers within the same trust level into a single virtual computing environment: ... ... ... This virtual systems capability enables a single physical device to be used to simultaneously meet the unique requirements of multiple VMs or groups of VMs. Control and protection of inter-host traffic with physical network security appliances that are properly positioned and configured is the primary security focus."
NEW QUESTION # 76
What are two functions of User and Entity Behavior Analytics (UEBA) data in Prisma Cloud CSPM? (Choose two.)
- A. Unifying cloud provider services
- B. Detecting and correlating anomalies
- C. Identifying misconfigurations
- D. Assessing severity levels
Answer: B,D
Explanation:
Assessing severity levels - UEBA data helps prioritize incidents by evaluating the risk and severity based on user and entity behavior.
Detecting and correlating anomalies - UEBA continuously analyzes activity to identify abnormal behavior and correlate anomalies that may indicate insider threats or compromised accounts.
NEW QUESTION # 77
Which Palo Alto Networks solution has replaced legacy IPS solutions?
- A. Advanced DNS Security
- B. Advanced WildFire
- C. Advanced Threat Prevention
- D. Advanced URL Filtering
Answer: C
Explanation:
Advanced Threat Prevention is the Palo Alto Networks solution that has replaced legacy Intrusion Prevention Systems (IPS). It offers inline, ML-powered threat detection and evasion-resistant inspection to block sophisticated threats in real time, going beyond traditional signature-based IPS.
NEW QUESTION # 78
What protocol requires all routers in the same domain to maintain a map of the network?
- A. OSPF
- B. RIP
- C. EIGRP
- D. Static
Answer: A
Explanation:
OSPF is a link-state routing protocol that requires all routers in the same domain to maintain a map of the network. This map is called the link-state database (LSDB) and it contains information about the topology and the state of each link. Each router independently calculates the shortest path to every destination in the network using the Dijkstra algorithm. OSPF routers exchange routing information by flooding link-state advertisements (LSAs) to their neighbors. LSAs are acknowledged by the receivers to ensure reliable delivery12. Reference:
What Is OSPF? Understanding Network Protocols By WireX Systems
Routing Protocols Overview - Global Knowledge
NEW QUESTION # 79
What is a dependency for the functionality of signature-based malware detection?
- A. Enabling quality of service
- B. API integration with a sandbox
- C. Frequent database updates
- D. Support of a DLP device
Answer: C
Explanation:
Signature-based malware detection relies on a constantly updated database of known threat signatures to identify malicious files or activity. Without frequent updates, it becomes ineffective against newly emerging threats.
NEW QUESTION # 80
Which Palo Alto Networks tools enable a proactive, prevention-based approach to network automation that accelerates security analysis?
- A. MineMeld
- B. Cortex XDR
- C. WildFire
- D. AutoFocus
Answer: B
Explanation:
Cortex XDR is a security analytics platform that converges logs from network, identity, endpoint, application, and other security relevant sources to generate high-fidelity behavioral alerts and facilitate rapid incident analysis, investigation, and response1. Cortex XDR uses machine learning algorithms to automate data analysis and apply modeling in real time, helping organizations to reduce analyst workloads and improve security1. Cortex XDR also integrates with Palo Alto Networks next-generation firewalls and other security tools to streamline and speed network security response2. Reference: Security Analytics - Palo Alto Networks, Network Security Automation - Palo Alto Networks
NEW QUESTION # 81
What does Palo Alto Networks Cortex XDR do first when an endpoint is asked to run an executable?
- A. check its execution policy
- B. send the executable to WildFire
- C. run a dynamic analysis
- D. run a static analysis
Answer: B
Explanation:
Palo Alto Networks Cortex XDR is an extended detection and response platform that provides endpoint protection, threat detection, and incident response capabilities. When an endpoint is asked to run an executable, Cortex XDR does the following steps1:
First, it sends the executable to WildFire, a cloud-based malware analysis and prevention service, to determine if it is malicious or benign. WildFire uses static and dynamic analysis, machine learning, and threat intelligence to analyze the executable and provide a verdict in seconds2.
Next, it checks the execution policy, which is a set of rules that define what actions are allowed or blocked on the endpoint. The execution policy can be configured by the administrator to enforce granular control over the endpoint behavior3.
Then, it runs a static analysis, which is a technique that examines the executable without executing it. Static analysis can identify malicious indicators, such as file signatures, hashes, strings, and embedded resources4.
Finally, it runs a dynamic analysis, which is a technique that executes the executable in a sandboxed environment and monitors its behavior. Dynamic analysis can detect malicious activities, such as network connections, registry changes, file modifications, and process injections4.
:
Cortex XDR Endpoint Protection Overview
WildFire Overview
[Execution Policy]
[Static and Dynamic Analysis]
NEW QUESTION # 82
What is a purpose of workload security on a Cloud Native Security Platform (CNSP)?
- A. To secure public cloud infrastructures only
- B. To secure serverless functions across the application
- C. To provide comprehensive logging of potential threat vectors
- D. To provide automation for application creation in the cloud
Answer: B
Explanation:
Workload security in a Cloud Native Security Platform (CNSP) is designed to secure containers, VMs, and serverless functions throughout the entire application lifecycle - from development to runtime - by detecting and blocking vulnerabilities, misconfigurations, and runtime threats.
NEW QUESTION # 83
How can local systems eliminate vulnerabilities?
- A. Create preventative memory-corruption techniques.
- B. Test and deploy patches on a focused set of systems.
- C. Patch systems and software effectively and continuously.
- D. Perform an attack on local systems.
Answer: C
Explanation:
Local systems can eliminate vulnerabilities by patching systems and software effectively and continuously. Patching is the process of applying updates or fixes to software or hardware components that have known vulnerabilities or bugs. Patching can prevent attackers from exploiting these vulnerabilities and compromising the security or functionality of the systems. Patching should be done regularly and promptly, as new vulnerabilities are constantly discovered and exploited by cybercriminals. Patching should also be done effectively, meaning that the patches are tested and verified before deployment, and that they do not introduce new vulnerabilities or issues. Patching should also be done continuously, meaning that the systems are monitored for new vulnerabilities and patches are applied as soon as they are available. Continuous patching can reduce the window of opportunity for attackers to exploit unpatched vulnerabilities and cause damage or data breaches. Reference:
* 1: What is Patch Management? | Palo Alto Networks
* 2: Patch Management Best Practices: How to Keep Your Systems Secure | Snyk
* 3: Vulnerability Remediation Process - 4 Steps to Remediation | Snyk
NEW QUESTION # 84
Which action is unique to the security orchestration, automation, and response (SOAR) platforms?
- A. Enhancing data collection
- B. Correlating incident data
- C. Prioritizing alerts
- D. Using predefined workflows
Answer: D
Explanation:
SOAR platforms are unique in their ability to automate incident response through the use of predefined workflows. These workflows allow repetitive security tasks to be executed automatically, improving response speed and efficiency.
NEW QUESTION # 85
Which item accurately describes a security weakness that is caused by implementing a "ports first" data security solution in a traditional data center?
- A. You may not be able to open up enough ports for your business-critical applications which will increase the attack surface area.
- B. You may have to use port numbers greater than 1024 for your business-critical applications.
- C. You may have to open up multiple ports and these ports could also be used to gain unauthorized entry into your datacenter.
- D. You may not be able to assign the correct port to your business-critical applications.
Answer: C
Explanation:
A "ports first" data security solution is a traditional approach that relies on port numbers to identify and filter network traffic. This approach has several limitations and security weaknesses, such as12:
Port numbers are not reliable indicators of the type or content of network traffic, as they can be easily spoofed or changed by malicious actors.
Port numbers do not provide any visibility into the application layer, where most of the attacks occur.
Port numbers do not account for the dynamic and complex nature of modern applications, which often use multiple ports or protocols to communicate.
Port numbers do not support granular and flexible policies based on user identity, device context, or application behavior. One of the security weaknesses that is caused by implementing a "ports first" data security solution in a traditional data center is that you may have to open up multiple ports and these ports could also be used to gain unauthorized entry into your datacenter. For example, if you have a web server that runs on port 80, you may have to open up port 80 on your firewall to allow incoming traffic. However, this also means that any other service or application that uses port 80 can also access your datacenter, potentially exposing it to attacks. Moreover, opening up multiple ports increases the attack surface area of your network, as it creates more entry points for attackers to exploit34. Reference: Common Open Port Vulnerabilities List - Netwrix, Optimize security with Azure Firewall solution for Azure Sentinel | Microsoft Security Blog, Which item accurately describes a security weakness that is caused by ..., Which item accurately describes a security weakness ... - Exam4Training
NEW QUESTION # 86
Why have software developers widely embraced the use of containers?
- A. Containers share application dependencies with other containers and with their host computer.
- B. Containers require separate development and production environments to promote authentic code.
- C. Containers simplify the building and deploying of cloud native applications.
- D. Containers are host specific and are not portable across different virtual machine hosts.
Answer: C
Explanation:
Containers are portable and lightweight alternatives to virtual machines that allow developers to package, isolate, and deploy applications across different cloud environments. Containers simplify the building and deploying of cloud native applications by providing consistent and efficient development, testing, and production environments. Containers also offer benefits such as rapid provisioning, high scalability, resource optimization, and security isolation. Reference:
What are containerized applications? from Google Cloud
What are containers and why do you need them? from IBM Developer
Embracing containers for software-defined cloud infrastructure from Red Hat
NEW QUESTION # 87
At which layer of the OSI model are routing protocols defined?
- A. Network
- B. Physical
- C. Transport
- D. Data Link
Answer: A
Explanation:
Routing protocols are defined at the network layer (Layer 3) of the OSI model. The network layer is responsible for routing packets across different networks using logical addresses (IP addresses). Routing protocols are used to exchange routing information between routers and to determine the best path for data delivery. Some examples of routing protocols are BGP, OSPF, RIP, and EIGRP. Palo Alto Networks devices support advanced routing features using the Advanced Routing Engine1. Reference: Advanced Routing - Palo Alto Networks | TechDocs, What Is Layer 7? - Palo Alto Networks, How to Configure Routing Information Protocol (RIP)
NEW QUESTION # 88
Which security component can detect command-and-control traffic sent from multiple endpoints within a corporate data center?
- A. Port-based firewall
- B. Personal endpoint firewall
- C. Stateless firewall
- D. Next-generation firewall
Answer: D
Explanation:
A next-generation firewall (NGFW) is a security component that can detect command-and-control (C2) traffic sent from multiple endpoints within a corporate data center. A NGFW is a network device that combines traditional firewall capabilities with advanced features such as application awareness, intrusion prevention, threat intelligence, and cloud-based analysis. A NGFW can identify and block C2 traffic by inspecting the application layer protocols, signatures, and behaviors of the network traffic, as well as correlating the traffic with external sources of threat intelligence. A NGFW can also leverage inline cloud analysis to detect and prevent zero-day C2 threats in real-time. A NGFW can provide granular visibility and control over the network traffic, as well as generate alerts and reports on the C2 activity. Reference:
Palo Alto Networks Certified Cybersecurity Entry-level Technician (PCCET) Command and Control, Tactic TA0011 - Enterprise | MITRE ATT&CK Advanced Threat Prevention: Inline Cloud Analysis - Palo Alto Networks
NEW QUESTION # 89
Which component of the AAA framework verifies user identities so they may access the network?
- A. Authorization
- B. Authentication
- C. Allowance
- D. Accounting
Answer: B
Explanation:
Authentication is the component of the AAA (Authentication, Authorization, and Accounting) framework that verifies user identities (e.g., via passwords, certificates, or biometrics) before granting access to network resources.
NEW QUESTION # 90
What type of area network connects end-user devices?
- A. Wide Area Network (WAN)
- B. Local Area Network (LAN)
- C. Personal Area Network (PAN)
- D. Campus Area Network (CAN)
Answer: B
Explanation:
A local area network (LAN) is a network that connects end-user devices such as personal computers, printers, scanners, and phones within a small geographic area, such as an office, school, or home. LANs allow users to share resources, such as files, applications, and internet access, among the connected devices. LANs typically use Ethernet or Wi-Fi as the communication medium and operate at high speeds with low error rates. LANs are usually owned and managed by a single person or organization. Reference: LANs, WANs, and Other Area Networks Explained, What is a LAN? Local Area Network, Types of area networks - LAN, MAN and WAN
NEW QUESTION # 91
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