[May 20, 2026] New CAS-005 Exam Dumps with High Passing Rate
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NEW QUESTION # 314
The Chief Security Officer (CSO) requested the security team implement technical controls that meet the following requirements:
- Monitors traffic to and from both local NAS and cloud-based file
repositories
- Prevents on-site staff who are accessing sensitive customer PII
documents on file repositories from accidentally or deliberately
sharing sensitive documents on personal SaaS solutions
- Uses document attributes to reduce false positives
- Is agentless and not installed on staff desktops or laptops
Which of the following when installed and configured would best meet the CSO's requirements?
(Choose two.)
- A. NGFW
- B. DLP
- C. HIPS
- D. CASB
- E. UEBA
- F. UTM
Answer: B,D
Explanation:
DLP (Data Loss Prevention): A network-based DLP solution can inspect traffic to and from on- prem NAS devices as well as cloud storage, using document fingerprinting and content-aware rules to reduce false positives without requiring agents on endpoints.
CASB (Cloud Access Security Broker): An agentless CASB sits inline (or via API) between users and cloud services - both sanctioned and unsanctioned - preventing uploads of sensitive PII to personal SaaS apps and enforcing attribute-based policies on documents in cloud repos.
NEW QUESTION # 315
A vulnerability can on a web server identified the following:
Which of the following actions would most likely eliminate on path decryption attacks? (Select two).
- A. Removing support for CBC-based key exchange and signing algorithms
- B. Restricting cipher suites to only allow TLS_RSA_WITH_AES_128_CBC_SHA
- C. Increasing the key length to 256 for TLS_RSA_WITH_AES_128_CBC_SHA
- D. Disallowing cipher suites that use ephemeral modes of operation for key agreement
- E. Implementing HIPS rules to identify and block BEAST attack attempts
- F. Adding TLS_ECDHE_ECDSA_WITH_AE3_256_GCMS_HA256
Answer: A,F
Explanation:
On-path decryption attacks, such as BEAST (Browser Exploit Against SSL/TLS) and other related vulnerabilities, often exploit weaknesses in the implementation of CBC (Cipher Block Chaining) mode. To mitigate these attacks, the following actions are recommended:
Removing support for CBC-based key exchange and signing algorithms: CBC mode is vulnerable to certain attacks like BEAST. By removing support for CBC-based ciphers, you can eliminate one of the primary vectors for these attacks. Instead, use modern cipher modes like GCM (Galois/Counter Mode) which offer better security properties.
Adding TLS_ECDHE_ECDSA_WITH_AES_256_GCM_SHA256: This cipher suite uses Elliptic Curve Diffie-Hellman Ephemeral (ECDHE) for key exchange, which provides perfect forward secrecy. It also uses AES in GCM mode, which is not susceptible to the same attacks as CBC.
SHA-256 is a strong hash function that ensures data integrity.
NEW QUESTION # 316
A security analyst Detected unusual network traffic related to program updating processes The analyst collected artifacts from compromised user workstations. The discovered artifacts were binary files with the same name as existing, valid binaries but. with different hashes which of the following solutions would most likely prevent this situation from reoccurring?
- A. Implementing digital signature
- B. Performing manual updates via USB ports
- C. Improving patching processes
- D. Allowing only dies from internal sources
Answer: A
Explanation:
Implementing digital signatures ensures the integrity and authenticity of software binaries. When a binary is digitally signed, any tampering with the file (e.g., replacing it with a malicious version) would invalidate the signature. This allows systems to verify the origin and integrity of binaries before execution, preventing the execution of unauthorized or compromised binaries.
A: Improving patching processes: While important, this does not directly address the issue of verifying the integrity of binaries.
B: Implementing digital signatures: This ensures that only valid, untampered binaries are executed, preventing attackers from substituting legitimate binaries with malicious ones.
C: Performing manual updates via USB ports: This is not practical and does not scale well, especially in large environments.
D: Allowing only files from internal sources: This reduces the risk but does not provide a mechanism to verify the integrity of binaries.
NEW QUESTION # 317
A developer makes a small change to a resource allocation module on a popular social media website and causes a memory leak. During a peak utilization period, several web servers crash, causing the website to go offline. Which of the following testing techniques is the most efficient way to prevent this from reoccurring?
- A. Load
- B. Canary
- C. Regression
- D. Smoke
Answer: C
Explanation:
Step-by-Step
Regression testing ensures that new changes do not break existing functionality. It would have identified the memory leak before deployment, preventing downtime.
NEW QUESTION # 318
The security team is looking into aggressive bot behavior that is resulting in performance issues on the web server. After further investigation, the security engineer determines that the bot traffic is legitimate. Which of the following is the best course of action to reduce performance issues without allocating additional resources to the server?
- A. Configure the WAF to rate-limit bot traffic.
- B. Monitor legitimate SEO bot traffic for abnormalities.
- C. Block all bot traffic using the IPS.
- D. Update robots.txt to slow down the crawling speed.
Answer: D
Explanation:
Comprehensive and Detailed Step by Step
Understanding the Scenario: The problem is legitimate bot traffic overloading the web server, causing performance issues. The goal is to mitigate this without adding more server resources.
Analyzing the Answer Choices:
A . Block all bot traffic using the IPS: This is too drastic. Blocking all bot traffic can negatively impact legitimate bots, like search engine crawlers, which are important for SEO.
Reference:
B . Monitor legitimate SEO bot traffic for abnormalities: Monitoring is good practice, but it doesn't actively solve the performance issue caused by the legitimate bots.
C . Configure the WAF to rate-limit bot traffic: Rate limiting is a good option, but it might be too aggressive if not carefully tuned. It could still impact the legitimate bots' ability to function correctly. A WAF is better used to identify and block malicious traffic.
D . Update robots.txt to slow down the crawling speed: This is the most appropriate solution. The robots.txt file is a standard used by websites to communicate with web crawlers (bots). It can specify which parts of the site should not be crawled and, crucially in this case, suggest a crawl delay.
Why D is the Correct answer:
robots.txt provides a way to politely request that well-behaved bots reduce their crawling speed. The Crawl-delay directive can be used to specify a delay (in seconds) between successive requests.
This approach directly addresses the performance issue by reducing the load caused by the bots without completely blocking them or requiring complex WAF configurations.
CASP+ Relevance: This solution aligns with the CASP+ focus on understanding and applying web application security best practices, managing risks associated with web traffic, and choosing appropriate controls based on specific scenarios.
How it works (elaboration based on web standards and security practices) robots.txt: This file is placed in the root directory of a website.
Crawl-delay directive: Crawl-delay: 10 would suggest a 10-second delay between requests.
Respectful Bots: Legitimate search engine crawlers (like Googlebot) are designed to respect the directives in robots.txt.
In conclusion, updating the robots.txt file to slow down the crawling speed is the best solution in this scenario because it directly addresses the issue of aggressive bot traffic causing performance problems without blocking legitimate bots or requiring significant configuration changes. It is a targeted and appropriate solution aligned with web security principles and CASP+ objectives.
Okay, here are the next two CASP+ questions, answered and explained in the requested format:
NEW QUESTION # 319
A compliance officer is reviewing the data sovereignty laws in several countries where the organization has no presence. Which of the following is the most likely reason for reviewing these laws?
- A. The organization is concerned with new regulatory enforcement in other countries
- B. The organization is performing due diligence of potential tax issues.
- C. The organization has suffered brand reputation damage from incorrect media coverage
- D. The organization has been subject to legal proceedings in countries where it has a presence.
Answer: A
Explanation:
Reviewing data sovereignty laws in countries where the organization has no presence is likely due to concerns about regulatory enforcement. Data sovereignty laws dictate how data can be stored, processed, and transferred across borders. Understanding these laws is crucial for compliance, especially if the organization handles data that may be subject to foreign regulations.
The organization is concerned with new regulatory enforcement in other countries: This is the most likely reason. New regulations could impact the organization's operations, especially if they involve data transfers or processing data from these countries.
NEW QUESTION # 320
After an incident occurred, a team reported during the lessons-learned review that the team.
* Lost important Information for further analysis.
* Did not utilize the chain of communication
* Did not follow the right steps for a proper response
Which of the following solutions is the best way to address these findinds?
- A. Publishing the incident response policy and enforcing it as part of the security awareness program
- B. Requesting budget for better forensic tools to Improve technical capabilities for Incident response operations
- C. Building playbooks for different scenarios and performing regular table-top exercises
- D. Requiring professional incident response certifications tor each new team member
Answer: C
Explanation:
Building playbooks for different scenarios and performing regular table-top exercises directly addresses the issues identified in the lessons-learned review. Here's why:
* Lost important information for further analysis: Playbooks outline step-by-step procedures for incident response, ensuring that team members know exactly what to document and how to preserve evidence.
* Did not utilize the chain of communication: Playbooks include communication protocols, specifying who to notify and when. Regular table-top exercises reinforce these communication channels, ensuring they are followed during actual incidents.
* Did not follow the right steps for a proper response: Playbooks provide a clear sequence of actions to be taken during various types of incidents, helping the team to respond in a structured and effective manner. Regular exercises allow the team to practice these steps, identifying and correcting any deviations from the plan.
Investing in better forensic tools (Option A) or requiring certifications (Option C) are also valuable, but they do not directly address the procedural and communication gaps identified. Publishing and enforcing the incident response policy (Option D) is important but not as practical and hands-on as playbooks and exercises in ensuring the team is prepared.
References:
* CompTIA Security+ Study Guide
* NIST SP 800-61 Rev. 2, "Computer Security Incident Handling Guide"
* SANS Institute, "Incident Handler's Handbook"
NEW QUESTION # 321
SIMULATION
[Identity and Access Management (IAM)]
A product development team has submitted code snippets for review prior to release.
INSTRUCTIONS
Analyze the code snippets, and then select one vulnerability, and one fix for each code snippet.
Code Snippet 1
Code Snippet 2
Vulnerability 1:
SQL injection
Cross-site request forgery
Server-side request forgery
Indirect object reference
Cross-site scripting
Fix 1:
Perform input sanitization of the userid field.
Perform output encoding of queryResponse,
Ensure usex:ia belongs to logged-in user.
Inspect URLS and disallow arbitrary requests.
Implementanti-forgery tokens.
Vulnerability 2
1) Denial of service
2) Command injection
3) SQL injection
4) Authorization bypass
5) Credentials passed via GET
Fix 2
A) Implement prepared statements and bind
variables.
B) Remove the serve_forever instruction.
C) Prevent the "authenticated" value from being overridden by a GET parameter.
D) HTTP POST should be used for sensitive parameters.
E) Perform input sanitization of the userid field.
Answer:
Explanation:
See the solution below in Explanation
Explanation:
Code Snippet 1
Vulnerability 1: SQL injection
SQL injection is a type of attack that exploits a vulnerability in the code that interacts with a database. An attacker can inject malicious SQL commands into the input fields, such as username or password, and execute them on the database server. This can result in data theft, data corruption, or unauthorized access.
Fix 1: Perform input sanitization of the userid field.
Input sanitization is a technique that prevents SQL injection byvalidating and filtering the user input values before passing them to the database. The input sanitization should remove any special characters, such as quotes, semicolons, or dashes, that can alter the intended SQL query. Alternatively, the input sanitization can use a whitelist of allowed values and reject any other values.
Code Snippet 2
Vulnerability 2: Cross-site request forgery
Cross-site request forgery (CSRF) is a type of attack that exploits a vulnerability in the code that handles web requests. An attacker can trick a user into sending a malicious web request to a server that performs an action on behalf of the user, such as changing their password, transferring funds, or deleting dat a. This can result in unauthorized actions, data loss, or account compromise.
Fix 2: Implement anti-forgery tokens.
Anti-forgery tokens are techniques that prevent CSRF by adding a unique and secret value to each web request that is generated by the server and verified by the server before performing the action. The anti-forgery token should be different for each user and each session, and should not be predictable or reusable by an attacker. This way, only legitimate web requests from the user's browser can be accepted by the server.
NEW QUESTION # 322
A company's security policy states that any publicly available server must be patched within 12 hours after a patch is released A recent llS zero-day vulnerability was discovered that affects all versions of the Windows Server OS:
Which of the following hosts should a security analyst patch first once a patch is available?
- A. 0
- B. 1
- C. 2
- D. 3
- E. 4
- F. 5
Answer: D
Explanation:
Based on the security policy that any publicly available server must be patched within 12 hours after a patch is released, the security analyst should patch Host 1 first. Here's why:
* Public Availability: Host 1 is externally available, making it accessible from the internet. Publicly available servers are at higher risk of being targeted by attackers, especially when a zero-day vulnerability is known.
* Exposure to Threats: Host 1 has IIS installed and is publicly accessible, increasing its exposure to potential exploitation. Patching this host first reduces the risk of a successful attack.
* Prioritization of Critical Assets: According to best practices, assets that are exposed to higher risks should be prioritized for patching to mitigate potential threats promptly.
* References:
* CompTIA Security+ SY0-601 Study Guide by Mike Chapple and David Seidl
* NIST Special Publication 800-40: Guide to Enterprise Patch Management Technologies
* CIS Controls: Control 3 - Continuous Vulnerability Management
NEW QUESTION # 323
An organization found a significant vulnerability associated with a commonly used package in a variety of operating systems. The organization develops a registry of software dependencies to facilitate incident response activities. As part of the registry, the organization creates hashes of packages that have been formally vetted. Which of the following attack vectors does this registry address?
- A. Supply chain attack
- B. On-path attack
- C. Side-channel analysis
- D. Cipher substitution attack
- E. Pass-the-hash attack
Answer: A
Explanation:
Comprehensive and Detailed Step by Step Explanation:
Understanding the Scenario: The question describes a proactive security measure where an organization maintains a registry of software dependencies and their corresponding hashes. This registry is used to verify the integrity of software packages.
Analyzing the Answer Choices:
A: Supply chain attack: This type of attack involves compromising the software supply chain by injecting malicious code into legitimate software packages.
NEW QUESTION # 324
A global organization wants to manage all endpoint and user telemetry. The organization also needs to differentiate this data based on which office it is correlated to. Which of the following strategies best aligns with this goal?
- A. Centralized logging
- B. Sensor placement
- C. Data labeling
- D. Continuous monitoring
Answer: C
Explanation:
Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation:
Managing telemetry and differentiating it by office requires a way to categorize data. Let's evaluate:
* A. Sensor placement:Useful for data collection but doesn't inherently differentiate by office.
* B. Data labeling:Assigns metadata (e.g., office location) to telemetry, enabling differentiation. This aligns with CAS-005's focus on data management for security operations.
* C. Continuous monitoring:Ensures ongoing data collection but doesn't address differentiation.
NEW QUESTION # 325
A company must build and deploy security standards for all servers in its on-premises and cloud environments based on hardening guidelines. Which of the following solutions most likely meets the requirements?
- A. Develop a security baseline to integrate with the vulnerability scanning platform to alert about any server not aligned with the new security standards.
- B. Create baseline images for each OS in use, following security standards, and integrate the images into the patching and deployment solution.
- C. Run a script during server deployment to remove all the unnecessary applications as part of provisioning.
- D. Build all new images from scratch, installing only needed applications and modules in accordance with the new security standards.
Answer: B
Explanation:
Creating secure baseline images ensures consistent, repeatable deployment aligned with hardening standards. These images can be used across on-premises and cloud environments, ensuring compliance and reducing misconfigurations.
* Vulnerability alerts (A) are reactive, not preventive.
* Building images from scratch (C) is time-consuming and unnecessary if baselines exist.
* Scripts for cleanup (D) are useful but do not prevent initial insecure configurations.
NEW QUESTION # 326
SIMULATION
You are tasked with integrating a new B2B client application with an existing OAuth workflow that must meet the following requirements:
- The application does not need to know the users' credentials.
- An approval interaction between the users and the HTTP service must be orchestrated.
- The application must have limited access to users' data.
INSTRUCTIONS
Use the drop-down menus to select the action items for the appropriate locations. All placeholders must be filled.
If at any time you would like to bring back the initial state of the simulation, please click the Reset All button.
Answer:
Explanation:
Explanation:
Resource Server: Authorize access to other applications
The resource server verifies tokens and allows access to protected resources.
Authorization Server: Access issued tokens
This server issues access tokens after successful authentication and user consent.
B2B Client Application: Grant access
The client uses the token to request access to resources. In the OAuth flow, this is the step where access is granted via token.
NEW QUESTION # 327
A company migrating to a remote work model requires that company-owned devices connect to a VPN before logging in to the device itself. The VPN gateway requires that a specific key extension is deployed to the machine certificates in the internal PKI. Which of the following best explains this requirement?
- A. The server connection uses SSL VPN, which uses certificates for secure communication.
- B. The certificate is an additional factor to meet regulatory MFA requirements for VPN access.
- C. The internal PKI certificate deployment allows for Wi-Fi connectivity before logging in to other systems.
- D. The VPN client selected the certificate with the correct key usage without user interaction.
Answer: D
Explanation:
This scenario describes an enterprise VPN setup that requires machine authentication before a user logs in. The best explanation for this requirement is that the VPN client selects the appropriate certificate automatically based on the key extension in the machine certificate.
Understanding the Key Extension Requirement:
PKI (Public Key Infrastructure) issues machine certificates that include specific key usages such as Client Authentication or IPSec IKE Intermediate.
Key usage extensions define how a certificate can be used, ensuring that only valid certificates are selected by the VPN client.
NEW QUESTION # 328
A central bank implements strict risk mitigations for the hardware supply chain, including an allow list for specific countries of origin. Which of the following best describes the cyberthreat to the bank?
- A. Physical Implants and tampering
- B. Non-conformance to accepted manufacturing standards
- C. Ability to obtain components during wartime
- D. Fragility and other availability attacks
Answer: A
Explanation:
The best description of the cyber threat to a central bank implementing strict risk mitigations for the hardware supply chain, including an allow list for specific countries of origin, is the risk of physical implants and tampering. Here's why:
Supply Chain Security: The supply chain is a critical vector for hardware tampering and physical implants, which can compromise the integrity and security of hardware components before they reach the organization.
Targeted Attacks: Banks and financial institutions are high-value targets, making them susceptible to sophisticated attacks, including those involving physical implants that can be introduced during manufacturing or shipping processes.
Strict Mitigations: Implementing an allow list for specific countries aims to mitigate the risk of supply chain attacks by limiting the sources of hardware. However, the primary concern remains the introduction of malicious components through tampering.
NEW QUESTION # 329
A company updates its cloud-based services by saving infrastructure code in a remote repository. The code is automatically deployed into the development environment every time the code is saved lo the repository The developers express concern that the deployment often fails, citing minor code issues and occasional security control check failures in the development environment Which of the following should a security engineer recommend to reduce the deployment failures? (Select two).
- A. Software composition analysis
- B. Automated regression testing
- C. Pre-commit code linting
- D. Code submit authorization workflow
- E. Pipeline compliance scanning
- F. Repository branch protection
Answer: B,C
Explanation:
B . Pre-commit code linting: Linting tools analyze code for syntax errors and adherence to coding standards before the code is committed to the repository. This helps catch minor code issues early in the development process, reducing the likelihood of deployment failures.
D . Automated regression testing: Automated regression tests ensure that new code changes do not introduce bugs or regressions into the existing codebase. By running these tests automatically during the deployment process, developers can catch issues early and ensure the stability of the development environment.
Other options:
A . Software composition analysis: This helps identify vulnerabilities in third-party components but does not directly address code quality or deployment failures.
C . Repository branch protection: While this can help manage the code submission process, it does not directly prevent deployment failures caused by code issues or security check failures.
E . Code submit authorization workflow: This manages who can submit code but does not address the quality of the code being submitted.
F . Pipeline compliance scanning: This checks for compliance with security policies but does not address syntax or regression issues.
Reference:
CompTIA Security+ Study Guide
"Continuous Integration and Continuous Delivery" by Jez Humble and David Farley OWASP (Open Web Application Security Project) guidelines on secure coding practices
NEW QUESTION # 330
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