Ultimate Guide to Prepare CRISC with Accurate PDF Questions [Jan 05, 2025]
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The CRISC certification is an important credential for IT professionals who want to advance their careers and demonstrate their expertise in risk management and information systems control. By acquiring this certification, professionals can enhance their credibility and demonstrate their commitment to maintaining the highest standards of excellence in their field.
ISACA CRISC certification exam is an ideal certification for professionals who are looking to demonstrate their expertise in IT risk management and control. Certified in Risk and Information Systems Control certification exam is comprehensive and covers all the important aspects of IT risk management. It is an excellent way for professionals to demonstrate their commitment to professional development and to advance their careers in the IT industry.
NEW QUESTION # 428
An organization has introduced risk ownership to establish clear accountability for each process. To ensure effective risk ownership, it is MOST important that:
- A. segregation of duties exists between risk and process owners.
- B. senior management has oversight of the process.
- C. process ownership aligns with IT system ownership.
- D. risk owners have decision-making authority.
Answer: D
Explanation:
According to the 1.9 Ownership & Accountability - CRISC, risk ownership is best established by mapping risk to specific business process owners. Details of the risk owner should be documented in the risk register.
Results of the risk monitoring should be discussed and communicated with the risk owner as they own the risk and are accountable for maintaining the risk within acceptable levels. To ensure effective risk ownership, it is most important that risk owners have decision-making authority, as this enables them to take timely and appropriate actions to manage the risk and ensure that it is aligned with the organization's risk appetite and tolerance. Without decision-making authority, risk owners may not be able to implement the necessary risk responses or escalate the issues to the relevant stakeholders. Therefore, the answer is D. risk owners have decision-making authority. References = 1.9 Ownership & Accountability - CRISC, The Importance of Effective Risk Governance in the C-suite - Aon
NEW QUESTION # 429
Continuous monitoring of key risk indicators (KRIs) will:
- A. provide an early warning so that proactive action can be taken.
- B. ensure that risk tolerance and risk appetite are aligned.
- C. ensure that risk will not exceed the defined risk appetite of the organization.
- D. provide a snapshot of the risk profile.
Answer: A
Explanation:
Continuous monitoring of key risk indicators (KRIs) will provide an early warning so that proactive action can be taken, because it helps to detect and measure the changes or trends in the risk level or performance, and to alert the risk owners and stakeholders when the risk exceeds the predefined thresholds or targets. A KRI is a metric or indicator that helps to monitor and evaluate the likelihood or impact of a risk, or the effectiveness or efficiency of a control. A KRI can be quantitative or qualitative, and can be derived from internal or external sources. Continuous monitoring is a process of collecting and analyzing data on a regular or real-time basis, to provide timely and relevant information for decision making or action taking. Continuous monitoring of KRIs will provide an early warning, as it helps to identify and address the risk issues or incidents before they escalate or cause significant damage or disruption. Ensuring that risk will not exceed the defined risk appetite of the organization, providing a snapshot of the risk profile, and ensuring that risk tolerance and risk appetite are aligned are all possible outcomes of continuous monitoring of KRIs, but they are not the best answer, as they do not reflect the main purpose and benefit of continuous monitoring of KRIs, which is to provide an early warning. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 3, Section 3.3.2, page 97
NEW QUESTION # 430
During which of the following processes, probability and impact matrix are prepared?
- A. Risk response
- B. Qualitative risk assessment
- C. Monitoring and Control Risk
- D. Quantitative risk assessment
Answer: B
Explanation:
Section: Volume D
Explanation:
The probability and impact matrix is a technique to prioritize identified risks of the project on their risk rating, and are being prepared while performing qualitative risk analysis. Evaluation of each risk's importance and, hence, priority for attention, is typically conducted using a look-up table or a probability and impact matrix. This matrix specifies combinations of probability and impact that lead to rating the risks as low, moderate, or high priority.
Incorrect Answers:
A, B: These processes are part of Risk Management. The probability and impact matrix is prepared during the qualitative risk analysis for further quantitative analysis and response based on their risk rating.
C: SLE, ARO and ALE are used in quantitative risk assessment.
NEW QUESTION # 431
Which of the following is the BEST method of creating risk awareness in an organization?
- A. Appointing the risk manager from the business units
- B. Providing regular communication to risk managers
- C. Marking the risk register available to project stakeholders
- D. Ensuring senior management commitment to risk training
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION # 432
An organization has implemented a preventive control to lock user accounts after three unsuccessful login attempts. This practice has been proven to be unproductive, and a change in the control threshold value has been recommended. Who should authorize changing this threshold?
- A. IT security manager
- B. Risk owner
- C. IT system owner
- D. Control owner
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION # 433
A company has located its computer center on a moderate earthquake fault. Which of the following is the MOST important consideration when establishing a contingency plan and an alternate processing site?
- A. The contingency plan provides for backup media to be taken to the alternative site.
- B. The alternative site is a hot site with equipment ready to resume processing immediately.
- C. The contingency plan for high priority applications does not involve a shared cold site.
- D. The alternative site does not reside on the same fault to matter how the distance apart.
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION # 434
Which of the following BEST assists in justifying an investment in automated controls?
- A. Cost-benefit analysis
- B. Elimination of compensating controls
- C. Alignment of investment with risk appetite
- D. Reduction in personnel costs
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION # 435
Which of the following presents the GREATEST challenge to managing an organization's end-user devices?
- A. Incomplete end-user device inventory
- B. Unsupported end-user applications
- C. Incompatible end-user devices
- D. Multiple end-user device models
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION # 436
Mitigating technology risk to acceptable levels should be based PRIMARILY upon:
- A. availability of automated solutions.
- B. business process requirements.
- C. business sector best practices.
- D. organizational risk appetite.
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION # 437
It is MOST appropriate for changes to be promoted to production after they are;
- A. initiated by business users.
- B. tested by business owners.
- C. communicated to business management
- D. approved by the business owner.
Answer: B
NEW QUESTION # 438
Which of the following is the BEST course of action when risk is found to be above the acceptable risk appetite?
- A. Review risk tolerance levels.
- B. Analyze the effectiveness of controls.
- C. Maintain the current controls.
- D. Execute the risk response plan.
Answer: B
Explanation:
Section: Volume D
NEW QUESTION # 439
Implementing which of the following controls would BEST reduce the impact of a vulnerability that has been exploited?
- A. Deterrent control
- B. Corrective control
- C. Preventive control
- D. Detective control
Answer: B
Explanation:
A vulnerability is a system flaw or weakness that can be exploited by a threat actor, potentially leading to a security breach or incident. A vulnerability that has been exploited means that a threat actor has successfully taken advantage of the vulnerability and compromised the system or network. Implementing controls can help reduce the impact of a vulnerability that has been exploited, by limiting or preventing the damage or loss caused by the security breach or incident. Controls are the mechanisms or procedures that ensure the security, reliability, and quality of an IT system or process. Controls can be classified into different types, depending on their purpose and function. The four types of controls mentioned in the question are:
* Detective control: A control that monitors and detects the occurrence or attempt of a security breach or incident, and alerts the appropriate personnel or system. For example, a log analysis tool that identifies and reports any unauthorized access or activity on the system or network.
* Deterrent control: A control that discourages or prevents a threat actor from exploiting a vulnerability or performing a malicious action, by increasing the perceived difficulty, risk, or cost of doing so. For example, a warning message that informs the user of the legal consequences of unauthorized access or use of the system or network.
* Preventive control: A control that blocks or stops a threat actor from exploiting a vulnerability or performing a malicious action, by eliminating or reducing the vulnerability or the opportunity. For example, a firewall that filters and blocks any unwanted or malicious traffic from entering or leaving the system or network.
* Corrective control: A control that restores or repairs the system or network to its normal or desired state, after a security breach or incident has occurred, by fixing or removing the vulnerability or the impact.
For example, a backup and recovery tool that restores the data or functionality of the system or network that has been corrupted or lost due to the security breach or incident.
The best type of control for reducing the impact of a vulnerability that has been exploited is the corrective control, because it directly addresses the damage or loss caused by the security breach or incident, and restores the system or network to its normal or desired state. Corrective controls can help minimize the negative consequences of a security breach or incident, such as downtime, data loss, reputational harm, legal liability, or regulatory sanctions. Corrective controls can also help prevent or reduce the recurrence of the security breach or incident, by fixing or removing the vulnerability that has been exploited. References = Types of Security Controls, Security Controls: What They Are and Why You Need Them, Security Controls:
Definition, Types & Examples.
NEW QUESTION # 440
Which of the following is the FIRST step in risk assessment?
- A. Identify risk factors
- B. Review risk governance
- C. Asset identification
- D. Inherent risk identification
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION # 441
You are the risk professional of your enterprise. You have performed cost and benefit analysis of control that you have adopted. What are all the benefits of performing cost and benefit analysis of control? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose three.
- A. It helps making smart choices based on potential risk mitigation costs and losses
- B. It helps in taking risk response decisions
- C. It helps in providing a monetary impact view of risk
- D. It helps in determination of the cost of protecting what is important
Answer: A,C,D
Explanation:
Section: Volume C
Explanation/Reference:
NEW QUESTION # 442
During an IT risk scenario review session, business executives question why they have been assigned ownership of IT-related risk scenarios. They feel IT risk is technical in nature and therefore should be owned by IT. Which of the following is the BEST way for the risk practitioner to address these concerns?
- A. Provide an estimate of IT system downtime if IT risk materializes
- B. Describe IT risk scenarios in terms of business risk
- C. Educate business executives on IT risk concepts
- D. Recommend the formation of an executive risk council to oversee IT risk
Answer: B
Explanation:
Section: Volume D
NEW QUESTION # 443
A change management process has recently been updated with new testing procedures. The NEXT course of action is to:
- A. communicate to those who test and promote changes
- B. conduct a cost-benefit analysis to justify the cost of the control
- C. monitor processes to ensure recent updates are being followed
- D. assess the maturity of the change management process
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION # 444
Which of the following is the MOST effective way to reduce potential losses due to ongoing expense fraud?
- A. Develop and communicate fraud prevention policies
- B. Perform regular internal audits
- C. Conduct fraud prevention awareness training.
- D. Implement user access controls
Answer: A
Explanation:
Developing and communicating fraud prevention policies is the most effective way to reduce potential losses due to ongoing expense fraud because it creates a culture of integrity and accountability, sets clear expectations and consequences for employees, and deters fraudulent behavior. Implementing user access controls, performing regular internal audits, and conducting fraud prevention awareness training are also important controls, but they are more reactive and detective than preventive. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 4, Section 4.3.2, page 4-26.
NEW QUESTION # 445
Which of the following findings of a security awareness program assessment would cause the GREATEST concern to a risk practitioner?
- A. The program has not considered business impact.
- B. The program uses non-customized training modules.
- C. The program has not decreased threat counts.
- D. The program has been significantly revised
Answer: B
NEW QUESTION # 446
The number of tickets to rework application code has significantly exceeded the established threshold. Which of the following would be the risk practitioner s BEST recommendation?
- A. Perform a root cause analysis
- B. Perform a code review
- C. Implement version control software.
- D. Implement training on coding best practices
Answer: A
Explanation:
* A root cause analysis is a process of identifying and understanding the underlying or fundamental causes or factors that contribute to or result in a problem or incident that has occurred or may occur in the organization. A root cause analysis can provide useful insights and solutions on the origin and nature of the problem or incident, and prevent or reduce its recurrence or impact.
* Performing a root cause analysis is the risk practitioner's best recommendation when the number of tickets to rework application code has significantly exceeded the established threshold, because it can help the organization to address the following questions:
* Why did the application code require rework?
* What were the errors or defects in the application code?
* How did the errors or defects affect the functionality or usability of the application?
* Who was responsible or accountable for the application code development and testing?
* When and how were the errors or defects detected and reported?
* What were the costs or consequences of the rework for the organization and its stakeholders?
* How can the errors or defects be prevented or minimized in the future?
* Performing a root cause analysis can help the organization to improve and optimize the application code quality and performance, and to reduce or eliminate the need for rework. It can also help the organization to align the application code development and testing with the organization's objectives and requirements, and to comply with the organization's policies and standards.
* The other options are not the risk practitioner's best recommendations when the number of tickets to rework application code has significantly exceeded the established threshold, because they do not address the main purpose and benefit of performing a root cause analysis, which is to identify and understand the underlying or fundamental causes or factors that contribute to or result in the problem or incident.
* Performing a code review is a process of examining and evaluating the application code for its quality, functionality, and security, using the input and feedback from the peers, experts, or tools.
Performing a code review can help the organization to identify and resolve the errors or defects in the application code, but it is not the risk practitioner's best recommendation, because it does not indicate why the application code required rework, and how the errors or defects affected the organization and its stakeholders.
* Implementing version control software is a process of using a software tool to manage and track the changes and modifications to the application code, and to ensure the consistency and integrity of the application code. Implementing version control software can help the organization to control and monitor the application code development and testing, but it is not the risk practitioner's best recommendation, because it does not indicate why the application code required rework, and how the errors or defects affected the organization and its stakeholders.
* Implementing training on coding best practices is a process of providing and facilitating the learning and development of the skills and knowledge on the principles, guidelines, and standards for the application code development and testing. Implementing training on coding best practices can help the organization to enhance the competence and performance of the application code developers and testers, but it is not the risk practitioner's best recommendation, because it does not indicate why the application code required rework, and how the errors or defects affected the organization and its stakeholders. References =
* ISACA, CRISC Review Manual, 7th Edition, 2022, pp. 40-41, 47-48, 54-55, 58-59, 62-63
* ISACA, CRISC Review Questions, Answers & Explanations Database, 2022, QID 189
* CRISC Practice Quiz and Exam Prep
NEW QUESTION # 447
Which of the following provides an organization with the MOST insight with regard to operational readiness associated with risk?
- A. Benchmarking against industry standards
- B. Self-assessment of capabilities
- C. Capability maturity assessment results
- D. Minutes of the enterprise risk committee meetings
Answer: B
Explanation:
Section: Volume D
NEW QUESTION # 448
Which of the following should be considered FIRST when assessing risk associated with the adoption of emerging technologies?
- A. Cost-benefit analysis
- B. Control self-assessment (CSA)
- C. Organizational strategy
- D. Business requirements
Answer: C
Explanation:
The first factor that should be considered when assessing risk associated with the adoption of emerging technologies is the organizational strategy. The organizational strategy defines the vision, mission, goals, and objectives of the enterprise, and provides the direction and guidance for its activities and decisions. The adoption of emerging technologies should be aligned with the organizational strategy, and support its achievement and performance. The organizational strategy also helps to determine the risk appetite and tolerance of the enterprise, and the criteria for evaluating the risks and benefits of the emerging technologies.
Cost-benefit analysis, control self-assessment, and business requirements are also important factors to consider when assessing risk associated with the adoption of emerging technologies, but they are not the first factor to consider. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, 7th Edition, Chapter 1, Section
1.2.1.1, page 181
1: ISACA Certified in Risk and Information Systems Control (CRISC) Exam Guide, Answer to Question
656.
NEW QUESTION # 449
Which of the following is the MOST important reason to restrict access to the risk register on a need-to-know basis?
- A. The risk methodology is intellectual property.
- B. Risk scenarios may be misinterpreted.
- C. It contains vulnerabilities and threats.
- D. Contents may be used as auditable findings.
Answer: C
Explanation:
Restricting access to the risk register on a need-to-know basis is important because it contains vulnerabilities and threats that could expose the organization to potential harm or loss if they are disclosed or exploited by unauthorized parties. The risk register is a tool that captures and documents the risk identification, analysis, evaluation, and treatment processes1. The risk register contains sensitive information such as the sources and causes of risk, the potential impacts and consequences of risk, the likelihood and frequency of risk occurrence, and the risk response actions and plans1. If this information is accessed by unauthorized parties, such as competitors, hackers, or malicious insiders, they could use it to launch attacks, sabotage operations, or gain an unfair advantage over the organization. Therefore, access to the risk register should be limited to those who have a legitimate need and authorization to view, modify, or use the information, such as the risk owners, managers, or practitioners
NEW QUESTION # 450
While considering entity-based risks, which dimension of the COSO ERM framework is being referred?
- A. Organizational levels
- B. Risk components
- C. Strategic objectives
- D. Risk objectives
Answer: A
Explanation:
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
The organizational levels of the COSO ERM framework describe the subsidiary, business unit, division, and entity-levels of aspects of risk solutions.
Incorrect Answers:
B: Risk components includes Internal Environment, Objectives settings, Event identification, Risk assessment, Risk response, Control activities, Information and communication, and monitoring.
C: Strategic objectives includes strategic, operational, reporting, and compliance risks; and not entity- based risks.
D: This is not a valid answer.
NEW QUESTION # 451
An organization is preparing to transfer a large number of customer service representatives to the sales department. Of the following, who is responsible for mitigating the risk associated with residual system access?
- A. IT service desk manager
- B. Access control manager
- C. Customer service manager
- D. Sales manager
Answer: B
Explanation:
* Residual system access is the risk that the customer service representatives who are transferred to the sales department may still have access to the systems or applications that they used in their previous role, which may not be relevant or authorized for their new role.
* The access control manager is the person or function who is responsible for defining, implementing, and maintaining the policies and procedures for granting, modifying, reviewing, and revoking access rights to the systems or applications, based on the principle of least privilege and the segregation of duties.
* The access control manager is responsible for mitigating the risk associated with residual system access, by ensuring that the access rights of the customer service representatives are updated or removed according to their new role and responsibilities, and that the access changes are documented and approved by the appropriate authorities.
* The other options are not responsible for mitigating the risk associated with residual system access.
They are either irrelevant or less effective than the access control manager.
The references for this answer are:
* Risk IT Framework, page 26
* Information Technology & Security, page 20
* Risk Scenarios Starter Pack, page 18
NEW QUESTION # 452
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