2022 Realistic CCSP Dumps Exam Tips Test Pdf Exam Material
Powerful CCSP PDF Dumps for CCSP Questions
Career Benefits
There are a lot of advantages you can get when you're CCSP certified. Your career will increase exposure, reputation, and job security by creating new opportunities to succeed in your cloud security career. With your good base in cybersecurity and cloud computing expertise, you will be a high-demand employee. Also, once you receive your CCSP, you will become an (ISC)2 member and part of the global professional community with several membership benefits. Besides, the average CCSP certified professional’s salary is USD 119k as stated by Payscale.
NEW QUESTION 402
Key maintenance and security are paramount within a cloud environment due to the widespread use of encryption for both data and transmissions.
Which of the following key-management systems would provide the most robust control over and ownership of the key-management processes for the cloud customer?
- A. Internal key management service
- B. Client key management service
- C. Remote key management service
- D. Local key management service
Answer: C
Explanation:
Explanation
A remote key management system resides away from the cloud environment and is owned and controlled by the cloud customer. With the use of a remote service, the cloud customer can avoid being locked into a proprietary system from the cloud provider, but also must ensure that service is compatible with the services offered by the cloud provider. A local key management system resides on the actual servers using the keys, which does not provide optimal security or control over them. Both the terms internal key management service and client key management service are provided as distractors.
NEW QUESTION 403
Which type of controls are the SOC Type 1 reports specifically focused on?
- A. Financial
- B. Privacy
- C. Integrity
- D. PII
Answer: A
Explanation:
Explanation
SOC Type 1 reports are focused specifically on internal controls as they relate to financial reporting.
NEW QUESTION 404
At which layer does the IPSec protocol operate to encrypt and protect communications between two parties?
- A. Transport
- B. Network
- C. Application
- D. Data link
Answer: B
NEW QUESTION 405
In which cloud service model is the customer required to maintain the OS?
- A. Iaas
- B. SaaS
- C. CaaS
- D. PaaS
Answer: A
Explanation:
Explanation
In IaaS, the service is bare metal, and the customer has to install the OS and the software; the customer then is responsible for maintaining that OS. In the other models, the provider installs and maintains the OS.
NEW QUESTION 406
Egress monitoring solutions usually include a function that ____________.
Response:
- A. Inspects incoming packets
- B. Uses stateful inspection
- C. Resides on client machines
- D. Uses biometrics to scan users
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION 407
Which protocol does the REST API depend on?
- A. SAML
- B. SSH
- C. XML
- D. HTTP
Answer: D
Explanation:
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Representational State Transfer (REST) is a software architectural scheme that applies the components, connectors, and data conduits for many web applications used on the Internet. It uses and relies on the HTTP protocol and supports a variety of data formats.
NEW QUESTION 408
Many activities within a cloud environment are performed via programmatic means, where complex and distributed operations are handled without the need to perform each step individually.
Which of the following concepts does this describe?
- A. Automation
- B. Orchestration
- C. Allocation
- D. Provisioning
Answer: B
Explanation:
Explanation
Orchestration is the programmatic means of managing and coordinating activities within a cloud environment and allowing for a commensurate level of automation and self-service. Provisioning, allocation, and automation are all components of orchestration, but none refers to the overall concept.
NEW QUESTION 409
While an audit is being conducted, which of the following could cause management and the auditors to change the original plan in order to continue with the audit?
- A. Cost overruns
- B. Impact on systems
- C. Software version changes
- D. Regulatory changes
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION 410
Which of the following is the primary purpose of an SOC 3 report?
- A. Absolute assurances
- B. HIPAA compliance
- C. Seal of approval
- D. Compliance with PCI/DSS
Answer: C
Explanation:
Explanation
The SOC 3 report is more of an attestation than a full evaluation of controls associated with a service provider.
NEW QUESTION 411
Which of the following best describes SAML?
- A. A standards for exchanging authentication and authorization data between security domains.
- B. A standard for developing secure application management logistics
- C. A standard used for directory synchronization
- D. A standard for exchanging usernames and passwords across devices.
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION 412
What are the two protocols that TLS uses?
- A. Transport and initiate
- B. Record and transmit
- C. Handshake and transport
- D. Handshake and record
Answer: D
Explanation:
Explanation
TLS uses the handshake protocol to establish and negotiate the TLS connection, and it uses the record protocol for the secure transmission of data.
NEW QUESTION 413
Which component of ITIL involves the creation of an RFC ticket and obtaining official approvals for it?
- A. Change management
- B. Deployment management
- C. Problem management
- D. Release management
Answer: A
Explanation:
Explanation
The change management process involves the creation of the official Request for Change (RFC) ticket, which is used to document the change, obtain the required approvals from management and stakeholders, and track the change to completion. Release management is a subcomponent of change management, where the actual code or configuration change is put into place. Deployment management is similar to release management, but it's where changes are actually implemented on systems. Problem management is focused on the identification and mitigation of known problems and deficiencies before they are able to occur.
NEW QUESTION 414
A UPS should have enough power to last how long?
- A. 12 hours
- B. One day
- C. 10 minutes
- D. Long enough for graceful shutdown
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION 415
For service provisioning and support, what is the ideal amount of interaction between a cloud customer and cloud provider?
- A. Depends on the contract
- B. Full
- C. Minimal
- D. Half
Answer: C
Explanation:
The goal with any cloud-hosting setup is for the cloud customer to be able to perform most or all its functions for service provisioning and configuration without any need for support from or interaction with the cloud provider beyond the automated tools provided. To fulfill the tenants of on-demand self-service, required interaction with the cloud provider--either half time, full time, or a commensurate amount of time based on the contract--would be in opposition to a cloud's intended use. As such, these answers are incorrect.
NEW QUESTION 416
Which protocol allows a system to use block-level storage as if it was a SAN, but over TCP network traffic instead?
- A. TLS
- B. SCSI
- C. iSCSI
- D. SATA
Answer: C
Explanation:
Explanation
iSCSI is a protocol that allows for the transmission and use of SCSI commands and features over a TCP-based network. iSCSI allows systems to use block-level storage that looks and behaves as a SAN would with physical servers, but to leverage the TCP network within a virtualized environment and cloud.
NEW QUESTION 417
Which data sanitation method is also commonly referred to as "zeroing"?
- A. Overwriting
- B. Blanking
- C. Deleting
- D. Nullification
Answer: A
Explanation:
The zeroing of data--or the writing of null values or arbitrary data to ensure deletion has been fully completed--is officially referred to as overwriting. Nullification, deleting, and blanking are provided as distractor terms.
NEW QUESTION 418
Where is an XML firewall most commonly and effectively deployed in the environment?
- A. Between the IPS and firewall
- B. Between the firewall and application server
- C. Between the application and data layers
- D. Between the presentation and application layers
Answer: B
Explanation:
Explanation
An XML firewall is most commonly deployed in line between the firewall and application server to validate XML code before it reaches the application. An XML firewall is intended to validate XML before it reaches the application. Placing the XML firewall between the presentation and application layers, between the firewall and IPS, or between the application and data layers would not serve the intended purpose.
NEW QUESTION 419
Because of multitenancy, specific risks in the public cloud that don't exist in the other cloud service models include all the following except:
- A. Information bleed
- B. Escalation of privilege
- C. DoS/DDoS
- D. Risk of loss/disclosure due to legal seizures
Answer: C
Explanation:
Explanation
DoS/DDoS threats and risks are not unique to the public cloud model.
NEW QUESTION 420
What strategy involves hiding data in a data set to prevent someone from identifying specific individuals based on other data fields present?
- A. Obfuscation
- B. Tokenization
- C. Masking
- D. Anonymization
Answer: D
Explanation:
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
With data anonymization, data is manipulated in such a way so as to prevent the identification of an individual through various data objects, and is often used in conjunction with other concepts such as masking.
NEW QUESTION 421
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Target Audience
The target candidates for this certification are Cloud professionals. These individuals have the prerequisite skills and knowledge in the Cloud security design, architecture, implementation, controls, compliance, and operations with specific regulatory frameworks. The intended audience has the expertise required to apply information security competence to the Cloud computing environments. The specialists can also demonstrate their skills in the Cloud security design, operations, architecture, and service orchestration.
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