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100% Real CCSP dumps - Brilliant CCSP Exam Questions PDF
The CCSP certification exam is recognized by organizations worldwide, making it a valuable credential for IT professionals looking to advance their careers in cloud security. CCSP exam is offered by the International Information System Security Certification Consortium (ISC) and is accredited by the American National Standards Institute (ANSI). Certified Cloud Security Professional certification requires candidates to have a minimum of five years of cumulative paid work experience in information technology, with a minimum of three years of experience in information security and one year in cloud security.
Cloud Data Security (19%):
- Explain the concepts of Cloud data – This objectives requires an understanding of the data dispersion and lifecycle phases of Cloud data;
- Design & apply the data security strategies and technologies – This topic covers an understanding of hashing, encryption & key management, tokenization, masking, data obfuscation, data loss prevention, and data de-identification;
- Design & implement the storage architectures for Cloud data – This subsection focuses on one’s knowledge of storage types, including raw disk, long-term, and ephemeral, as well as the understanding of threats to different types of storage;
- Plan & implement data retention, deletion & archiving policies – This domain focuses on the skills related to data retention policies, legal hold, data deletion mechanisms & procedures, and data archiving mechanisms & procedures;
- Design & implement IRM (Information Rights Management) – It requires an understanding of the objectives and appropriate tools relevant to IRM;
- Design & implement auditability, accountability, and traceability of data event – This module requires the individuals’ knowledge of the non-repudiation and custody chain, logging, analysis, and storage of data events, and definition of identity attribution’s event sources & requirements.
NEW QUESTION # 427
With a federated identity system, where would a user perform their authentication when requesting services or application access?
- A. The application
- B. Their home organization
- C. Cloud provider
- D. Third-party authentication system
Answer: B
Explanation:
With a federated identity system, a user will perform authentication with their home organization, and the application will accept the authentication tokens and user information from the identity provider in order to grant access. The purpose of a federated system is to allow users to authenticate from their home organization. Therefore, using the application or a third-party authentication system would be contrary to the purpose of a federated system because it necessitates the creation of additional accounts. The use of a cloud provider would not be relevant to the operations of a federated system.
NEW QUESTION # 428
One of the main components of system audits is the ability to track changes over time and to match these changes with continued compliance and internal processes.
Which aspect of cloud computing makes this particular component more challenging than in a traditional data center?
- A. Portability
- B. Elasticity
- C. Virtualization
- D. Resource pooling
Answer: C
Explanation:
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Cloud services make exclusive use of virtualization, and systems change over time, including the addition, subtraction, and reimaging of virtual machines. It is extremely unlikely that the exact same virtual machines and images used in a previous audit would still be in use or even available for a later audit, making the tracking of changes over time extremely difficult, or even impossible. Elasticity refers to the ability to add and remove resources from a system or service to meet current demand, and although it plays a factor in making the tracking of virtual machines very difficult over time, it is not the best answer in this case.
Resource pooling pertains to a cloud environment sharing a large amount of resources between different customers and services. Portability refers to the ability to move systems or services easily between different cloud providers.
NEW QUESTION # 429
Different types of audits are intended for different audiences, such as internal, external, regulatory, and so on.
Which of the following audits are considered "restricted use" versus being for a more broad audience?
- A. SOC Type 2
- B. SOC Type 1
- C. SOC Type 3
- D. SAS-70
Answer: B
Explanation:
SOC Type 1 reports are intended for restricted use, only to be seen by the actual service organization, its current clients, or its auditors. These reports are not intended for wider or public distribution.SAS-70 audit reports have been deprecated and are no longer in use, and both the SOC Type 2 and 3 reports are designed to expand upon the SOC Type 1 reports and are for broader audiences.
NEW QUESTION # 430
DLP solutions can aid in deterring loss due to which of the following?
- A. Power failure
- B. Performance
- C. Malicious disclosure
- D. Bad policy
Answer: C
Explanation:
DLP tools can identify outbound traffic that violates the organization's policies. DLP will not protect against losses due to performance issues or power failures. The DLP solution must be configured according to the organization's policies, so bad policies will attenuate the effectiveness of DLP tools, not the other way around.
NEW QUESTION # 431
Data masking can be used to provide all of the following functionality, except:
- A. Authentication of privileged users
- B. Enforcing least privilege
- C. test data in sandboxed environments
- D. Secure remote access
Answer: A
Explanation:
Data masking does not support authentication in any way. All the others are excellent use cases for data masking.
NEW QUESTION # 432
What concept does the "R" represent with the DREAD model?
- A. Residual
- B. Repudiation
- C. Risk
- D. Reproducibility
Answer: D
Explanation:
Reproducibility is the measure of how easy it is to reproduce and successful use an exploit. Scoring within the DREAD model ranges from 0, signifying a nearly impossibly exploit, up to 10, which signifies something that anyone from a simple function call could exploit, such as a URL.
NEW QUESTION # 433
SOC Type 1 reports are considered "restricted use," in that they are intended only for limited audiences and purposes.
Which of the following is NOT a population that would be appropriate for a SOC Type 1 report?
- A. Current clients
- B. The service organization
- C. Auditors
- D. Potential clients
Answer: D
Explanation:
Potential clients are not served by SOC Type 1 audits. A Type 2 or Type 3 report would be appropriate for potential clients. SOC Type 1 reports are intended for restricted use, where only the service organization itself, current clients, or auditors would have access to them.
NEW QUESTION # 434
Which United States law is focused on accounting and financial practices of organizations?
- A. SOX
- B. GLBA
- C. HIPAA
- D. Safe Harbor
Answer: A
Explanation:
Explanation
The Sarbanes-Oxley (SOX) Act is not an act that pertains to privacy or IT security directly, but rather regulates accounting and financial practices used by organizations. It was passed to protect stakeholders and shareholders from improper practices and errors, and it sets forth rules for compliance, regulated and enforced by the Securities and Exchange Commission (SEC). The main influence on IT systems and operations is the requirements it sets for data retention, specifically in regard to what types of records must be preserved and for how long.
NEW QUESTION # 435
In the cloud motif, the data processor is usually:
- A. The cloud access security broker
- B. The party that assigns access rights
- C. The cloud customer
- D. The cloud provider
Answer: D
Explanation:
In legal terms, when "data processor" is defined, it refers to anyone who stores, handles, moves, or manipulates data on behalf of the data owner or controller. In the cloud computing realm, this is the cloud provider.
NEW QUESTION # 436
Which of the following is the best example of a key component of regulated PII?
Response:
- A. PCI DSS
- B. Audit rights of subcontractors
- C. Mandatory breach reporting
- D. Items that should be implemented
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION # 437
Which of the following is the optimal temperature for a data center, per the guidelines established by the America Society of Heating, Refrigeration, and Air Conditioning Engineers (ASHRAE)?
- A. 64.4-80.6degF(18-27degC)
- B. 69.8-86.0degF (21-30degC)
- C. 51.8-66.2degF(11-19degC)
- D. 44.6-60-8degF(7-16degC)
Answer: A
Explanation:
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
The guidelines from ASHRAE establish 64.4-80.6degF (18-27degC) as the optimal temperature for a data center.
NEW QUESTION # 438
Which of the following are cloud computing roles?
- A. Cloud service broker and user
- B. Cloud service auditor and object
- C. Cloud customer and financial auditor
- D. CSP and backup service provider
Answer: D
Explanation:
The following groups form the key roles and functions associated with cloud computing. They do not constitute an exhaustive list but highlight the main roles and functions within cloud computing:
- Cloud customer: An individual or entity that utilizes or subscribes to cloud based services or resources.
- CSP: A company that provides cloud-based platform, infrastructure, application, or storage services to other organizations or individuals, usually for a fee; otherwise known to clients "as a service.
- Cloud backup service provider: A third-party entity that manages and holds operational responsibilities for cloud-based data backup services and solutions to customers from a central data center.
- CSB: Typically a third-party entity or company that looks to extend or enhance value to multiple customers of cloud-based services through relationships with multiple CSPs. It acts as a liaison between cloud services customers and CSPs, selecting the best provider for each customer and monitoring the services. The CSB can be utilized as a "middleman" to broker the best deal and customize services to the customer's requirements. May also resell cloud services.
- Cloud service auditor: Third-party organization that verifies attainment of SLAs.
NEW QUESTION # 439
Which aspect of cloud computing makes data classification even more vital than in a traditional data center?
- A. Portability
- B. Multitenancy
- C. Interoperability
- D. Virtualization
Answer: B
Explanation:
With multiple tenants within the same hosting environment, any failure to properly classify data may lead to potential exposure to other customers and applications within the same environment.
NEW QUESTION # 440
Which of the following management risks can make an organization's cloud environment unviable?
Response:
- A. Insider trading
- B. Improper personnel selection
- C. Hostile takeover
- D. VM sprawl
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION # 441
Although host-based and network-based IDSs perform similar functions and have similar capabilities, which of the following is an advantage of a network-based IDS over a host-based IDS, assuming all capabilities are equal?
- A. External to system patching
- B. Segregated from host systems
- C. Scalability
- D. Network access
Answer: B
Explanation:
A network-based IDS has the advantage of being segregated from host systems, and as such, it would not be open to compromise in the same manner a host-based system would be. Although a network-based IDS would be external to system patching, this is not the best answer here because it is a minor concern compared to segregation due to possible host compromise.
Scalability is also not the best answer because, although a network-based IDS does remove processing from the host system, it is not a primary security concern. Network access is not a consideration because both a host-based IDS and a network- based IDS would have access to network resources.
NEW QUESTION # 442
Which data protection strategy would be useful for a situation where the ability to remove sensitive data from a set is needed, but a requirement to retain the ability to map back to the original values is also present?
- A. Anonymization
- B. Encryption
- C. Tokenization
- D. Masking
Answer: C
Explanation:
Explanation
Tokenization involves the replacement of sensitive data fields with key or token values, which can ultimately be mapped back to the original, sensitive data values. Masking refers to the overall approach to covering sensitive data, and anonymization is a type of masking, where indirect identifiers are removed from a data set to prevent the mapping back of data to an individual. Encryption refers to the overall process of protecting data via key pairs and protecting confidentiality.
NEW QUESTION # 443
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ISC CCSP Practice Test Questions, ISC CCSP Exam Practice Test Questions
This certification is ideal for the information security and IT leaders looking to validate their knowledge of cybersecurity and securing the organization’s critical assets within Cloud. The candidates for the (ISC)2 CSSP certificate demonstrate their advanced knowledge and technical skills in designing, securing, and managing data, infrastructure, and applications in Cloud by taking the qualifying exam.
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